Archive for the Category Quantitative Easing

 
 

Feldstein–>Glasner–>Feldstein

Here’s Martin Feldstein:

Why then the recent revival of interest in fiscal stimulus? By the fall of 2007 it became clear to many economists that the current downturn is different from previous recessions and that monetary policy would not be effective in bringing us back to full employment.

I’ve always wondered how the economic profession could have been so oblivious to the need for the Fed to increase expected NGDP growth in late 2008.  Now we find out that as early as 2007 many economists had made up their minds (for some mysterious reason) that monetary stimulus wouldn’t work in this crisis.  What is that reason?  I haven’t a clue.  We know from 1933 that unconventional monetary stimulus can create fast NGDP growth, even with near zero rates and a completely dysfunctional banking system.

Here’s a recent Financial Times letter where David Glasner (an expert on monetary history and reader of this blog) responded to one of Feldstein’s recent FT essays:

Why then is inflation “unwanted”? Mr Feldstein maintains that it would jeopardise the credibility of the Fed’s long-term inflation strategy. But it is not clear why Fed credibility would be jeopardised more by a temporary increase, than by a temporary decrease, in inflation, or, indeed, why credibility would be jeopardised at all by a short-term increase in inflation to compensate for a prior short-term decrease? The inflexible conception of inflation targeting espoused by Mr Feldstein, painfully articulated in Federal Open Market Committee minutes, led the Fed into a disastrous tightening of monetary policy between March and October 2008, while the US economy was falling into a deepening recession because of a misplaced concern that rising oil and food prices would cause inflation expectations to run out of control.

Feldstein’s worry about inflation seems hard to reconcile with his earlier views.  QE won’t work, because it won’t boost AD.  QE is bad, because it will boost inflation.  How many times have we seen that bizarre dichotomy?  Once again, QE boosts inflation if and only if it boost AD.  Do we want more AD, or not?

Of course QE2 was highly effective at boosting AD.  How do I know?  Because Martin Feldstein just told me so.  (Maybe he read Glasner’s letter.)  Perhaps we ought to have done that highly effective QE back in 2008, when we really needed it.  Instead we had nearly every major macroeconomist saying that monetary policy was out of ammo, and we should either do fiscal stimulus, or do no stimulus at all.  What a sorry period that was for the field of macroeconomics.

How about setting up a blue ribbon AEA panel to investigate why nearly the entire economics profession (excluding a few people like Robert Hetzel and some of my fellow bloggers) had a collective brain freeze between September 2008 and March 2009.

HT:  Statsguy

Yes, QE2 did happen, and it (sort of) worked

I say “sort of” because it was obviously too little, too late.  But it’s now pretty clear that it did have an expansionary impact on both nominal and real aggregates.  Let’s start with the “did it happen” question.  Here’s Arnold Kling:

In the current setting, it appears that economic activity is expanding and inflation is higher than it had been. One may choose to interpret this as resulting from the Fed’s quantitative easing. However, I am not signing onto that one. I recall reading recently that QE 2 was basically canceled out by offsetting changes in Treasury funding operations. That is, as the Fed bought more long-term bonds, the Treasury issued more long-term bonds relative to short-term securities. So we are left with the channel that the Fed announced a higher intended path for nominal GDP, and this was self-fulfilling. Strikes me as a very difficult proposition to prove or disprove.

I also recall reading that QE2 was cancelled out, but as the following graph shows the base is up $300 billion since November:

Of course switching long and short term bonds does almost nothing (this was once called operation twist.)  QE is all about increasing the base.

As far as the effects being “difficult to prove,” nothing could be further from the truth.  Asset markets of all kinds responded very strongly to Fed rumors of QE2 in September and October 2010.  Those sorts of event studies aren’t proof, but they’re the closest we get in macro—far more significant than most econometric studies published in elite journals.

I’m constantly surprised by people’s reluctance to accept the efficacy of monetary stimulus.  When a (fiat) central bank is bound and determined to raise NGDP, it will never fail.

Everyone from Jim Hamilton to Paul Krugman to Martin Feldstein is talking about the recent acceleration of growth.  But when I suggested this was evidence that QE2 might be working, Mark Thoma insisted that this couldn’t be true, as modern macroeconomics has established that monetary policy operates with significant lags.  My initial reaction was “that’s what’s wrong with modern macro.”

Yes, I’m out of the mainstream.  But it’s hard to find a more mainstream economist than Martin Feldstein, and he insists that QE2 is responsible for the recent upswing.  We had a huge stock market rally triggered by rumors of QE2, and then in 2010:4 we saw the most rapid growth in real final sales in more than 2 decades.  (Nominal final sales was also very strong, and is actually the better indicator–but everyone else seems to want to look at real variables.  Note the focus on weak real GDP in the UK during Q4.)

In fact, Feldstein underplays the impact of QE2, as he only considers the impact of higher wealth on consumption.  But the increase in asset prices produced by QE2 also raises investment.  The depreciation of the dollar caused by QE2 raises exports.  Indeed if QE2 produces economic growth, it also slightly reduces cutbacks of state and local government spending.  BTW, it’s now obvious that S&L spending is so endogenous that it might as well be lumped in with the private sector, not treated as a sort of “fiscal policy” that can be waved around like a magic wand.

In addition, Feldstein actually underestimates the evidence in favor of QE2 being the cause of the recent acceleration in growth.  It’s not just that stocks rose at roughly the same time.  As I already noted, stocks clearly were rising in response to specific rumors of QE2 in September and October 2010.

In Kling’s post it’s a bit hard to figure out whether he is skeptical that monetary stimulus can boost nominal variables, or real variables.  He provides this quotation from a Reinhart and Reinhart paper:

 Second, changes in monetary policy can only change real interest rates temporarily.

Yes, some people argue that real interest rates are an important transmission mechanism.  I doubt they matter much, but even if they did, note that 5 year TIPS yields have fallen into negative territory.  In my view monetary policy works by raising expected future NGDP, and current asset prices.  Kling then argues:

The point of the Reinhart and Reinhart paper is to demonstrate empirically that central bankers can only make a big difference if they make really big policy changes.

The important difference isn’t between big and small changes, but between temporary and permanent effects.  We know (from asset market responses) that even quarter point changes in the fed funds target can have a huge impact on the stock market.  These big effects occur precisely when the policy shocks lead to a change in the expected future path of policy.  When they don’t, they have little effect.

In the first Kling quotation I provided he expresses skepticism about merely psychological aspects of Fed policy.  In fact, we know that expectations are far more important than actual changes.  I’ll finish with a couple easy thought experiments that demonstrate why expected future policy matters:

1.  The central banks doubles the monetary base, and the change is expected to be permanent.  Assume it occurred because a new populist government takes power in Bolivia.

2.  The Fed doubles the monetary base right before Y2K hits, and announces that the money will be withdrawn from circulation 4 weeks later.  Their intention is to make sure enough liquidity is available in case ATM machines break down on 1/1/00.

In case 1, nominal asset prices double, in case 2 they hardly budge.  Yet in both cases the monetary base doubles.  Why the difference?  Purely psychological factors; different expectations about future monetary policy.

Case 2 is sort of like what happened in the 2008 crisis.  In this case the Fed could leave this extra money in circulation for quite some time, because of a combination of IOR and near zero rates.  But if Bernanke announced that the Fed was going to permanently abandon IOR, and planned to leave the base at twice its normal level even when T-bill yields rose back up to normal levels, inflation would explode almost immediately.

Commenters:  I beg you not to ask me one more time to explain in a “mechanical” way how QE2 causes NGDP to rise.  Hint: it has nothing to do with banks.

PS.  Just to be clear, I am not expecting miracles from QE2.  At the time I guesstimated that the markets had raised their 2011 NGDP growth forecasts from about 3.5% to 4.0% in the dog days of summer, to about 5.0% to 5.5% after QE2 was announced in early November.  I still think we are in that ballpark, but obviously a collapse of the House of Saud or another euro crisis would shake things up.  I’d still like to see about twice the monetary stimulus that we got, even though (paradoxically) I think we are gradually transitioning from an aggregate demand shortfall to an aggregate supply shortfall.  But I continue to believe that more AD would boost the supply-side of the economy, mostly by speeding the removal of 99 week UI.

PPS.  And no, $1200 billion in QE would not have provided “twice the stimulus.”  It’s all about expectations.

What successful monetary policy looks like

A couple items yesterday got me thinking again about Swedish monetary policy.  Here’s a comment Michael Bordo made at The Economist’s “By Invitation”:

If the central bank is successful in maintaining a stable and credible nominal anchor then real macro stability should obtain. But in the face of real shocks central banks also need to follow short-run stabilisation policies consistent with long-run price stability. The flexible inflation-targeting approach followed by the Riksbank and the Norges Bank seems to be a good model that other central banks like the Federal Reserve, should follow.

I strongly agree, but nevertheless was a bit surprised to see Michael Bordo make this argument.  I recall that he had been somewhat more skeptical about QE2 than I was, and I pegged him as being a bit more conservative, or hawkish on inflation.  In previous posts I argued that the Riksbank engineered a more rapid reconomic recovery precisely because they were more stimulative than the Fed, ECB, and BOJ.  So why do we both agree on Sweden?

I think it was Tolstoy who once said:

Successful central banks are are all alike, every unsuccessful central bank is unsuccessful in its own way.

Or maybe it was Dostoevsky.

At any rate, in previous posts I’ve argued that unsuccessful policy makes the stance of monetary policy very difficult to read.  If you are successful in stabilizing inflation expectations, then interest rates might be able to provide a reasonably reliable indicator of the stance of monetary policy.  The same is true of the monetary base.  On the other hand if you run a highly deflationary monetary policy then interest rates may fall to very low levels.  Tight money might look “easy.”  Deflation can also cause the real (and nominal) monetary base to rise sharply, as people and banks hoard base money.   Thus a deflationary monetary policy might look excessively expansive to some, and excessively contractionary to others.  The policy instruments that economists rely on become much less informative under extreme conditions.

Stefan Elfwing recently sent me the newest monetary policy report from the Riksbank.  Here (p. 30) they contrast recent trends in Swedish and US monetary policy:

In December and January, the Riksbank’s final extraordinary loans to the banks (which totalled SEK 5.5 billion) matured. This meant that all of the extraordinary measures implemented by the Riksbank during the crisis have now been completely wound up. As a result of this, the Riksbank’s balance sheet total has come close to the level prevailing before the crisis in 2008. The remaining difference in the balance sheet total is due to the strengthening of the foreign currency reserve carried out by the Riksbank in 2010.

In conjunction with its monetary policy meeting in November, the Federal Reserve announced that it would start to buy government bonds in an amount of up to USD 600 billion until the end of the second quarter of 2011. These purchases are proceeding as planned and are contributing to the continued increase of the Federal Reserve’s balance sheet total.

In addition, the Riksbank has actually been raising interest rates in recent months, and just announced an intention to accelerate the pace of rate hikes.  So how can I argue that the Riksbank has pursued a more stimulative monetary policy than the Fed?  After all, the Fed is continuing its zero rate policy, and just recently announced another $600 billion in QE, to add onto the roughly trillion dollars of assets purchased in 2008-09.

In my view the more rapid return to normalcy in Sweden reflects the success of Riksbank policy during 2008-09.  But how do we measure the policy stance of the Riksbank, if both interest rates and the monetary base are partly endogenous?  I favor NGDP expectations, but I’m obviously in the minority.  Fortunately there are two other widely accepted indicators that also point to the expansive nature of Riksbank policy.

When the world crisis became severe in late 2008, the Riksbank allowed the krona to depreciate sharply against the euro:

This cushioned the blow from sharply declining world demand for Swedish exports, and helped keep Swedish inflation close to the Riksbank’s 2% target during 2009-10.

And all this was done without any loss in credibility of the Riksbanks’ 2% inflation target, as evidenced by the fact that yields on 10 year Swedish government bonds continue to closely track German yields.

One argument against my hypothesis is that Sweden did suffer a severe recession in 2009, with real GDP falling slightly faster than the eurozone.  However it is important to keep in mind that just as an individual worker or firm cannot shield itself from unemployment via complete wage and price flexibility, the same argument applies to small open economies that are exposed to a severe worldwide demand shock.  Sweden’s goods exports are close to half of GDP, if one counts goods and services they are well over 50% of GDP.  Swedish goods exports plunged more than 15% in late 2008 and early 2009.  There is simply no way Sweden could avoid a severe recession under those world economic conditions, regardless of whether they did NGDP targeting or not.

You might ask why the big depreciation of the krona didn’t prop up Swedish exports.  It may have to some extent, but consider the following example. Say a casino project  to create one of the best casino sites in Vegas orders a central air conditioning unit from Sweden. However online casinos are transforming rapidly, and a reliable site similar to casinoslotsforum.com aims to keep the readers up to date with all the latest trends and bonus promotions online! Now, assume that the construction project gets canceled because of economic problems in the US.  How much would Sweden have to cut the price on the AC unit to prevent the sale from being canceled?  Would any price cut be enough?  Sticky wages and prices in the aggregate turn nominal shocks into real recessions.  But unfortunately once that happens, price and wage flexibility at the micro level can only do so much.

Here’s some evidence from the Swedish report that supports the preceding hypothetical:

During the crisis, exports of investment and input goods in particular fell dramatically. These sectors are now primarily responsible for the strong increase in Swedish exports. The [recent] development of exports is connected with the increase of investments we now see in large parts of the world.

The depreciation of the krona might have bought Volvo, Saab and Electrolux a few more sales of cars and vacuums, as those prices fell relative to their German competitors.  But modern sophisticated economies like Sweden and Germany tend to focus on complex capital goods and inputs, which depend less on price than on demand conditions in their export markets.

If Sweden suffered a sharp fall in GDP during 2009 (slightly faster than the eurozone), what evidence do I have that monetary stimulus was successful?  I don’t have any conclusive evidence, but the report does indicate that Swedish GDP is expected to rise 5.5% in 2010 and 4.4% in 2011.  Even Germany, often regarded as the most successful of the eurozone economies, is only expected to grow 3.5% and 2.6%, that’s almost 4% less over two years.  Another interesting comparison is Denmark, which like Sweden suffered a sharp fall in GDP in 2009, and yet has a much slower recovery (2.0% GDP growth in both 2010 and 2011.)

Why did the krona rebound in 2010?  There could be a number of reasons, including sound public finances.  But one additional factor may have been the strong economic recovery in Sweden.  Recall that in late 2008 real interest rates soared in the US, but then plunged in 2009.  The original increase was partly due to tight money, and the later decrease may have reflected the weak economy in 2009.  It wouldn’t surprise me if a similar short- and long run dynamic occurred with the Swedish krona.

The Swedish report is a model of elegance, logic, and transparency.  I couldn’t help wondering why our Fed could not produce similar reports.  They clearly lay out their policy goals (2% inflation and output stability), their expectations for the economy, and the expected path of their policy instrument.  When members dissent, the reasons are clearly laid out and explained (as in the abbreviated report):

Forecasts for inflation in Sweden, GDP and the repo rate

Annual percentage change, annual average

2009 2010 2011 2012 2013
CPI -0.3 1.3 (1.3) 2.5 (2.2) 2.1 (2.0) 2.6 (2.6)
CPIF 1.9 2.1 (2.1) 1.9 (1.7) 1.5 (1.4) 2.0 (1.9)
GDP -5.3 5.5 (5.5) 4.4 (4.4) 2.4 (2.3) 2.5 (2.4)
Repo rate, per cent 0.7 0.5 (0.5) 1.8 (1.7) 2.8 (2.6) 3.4 (3.3)

Note. The assessment in the December 2010 Monetary Policy Update is shown in brackets.
Sources: Statistics Sweden and the Riksbank

Forecast for the repo rate.  Per cent, quarterly averages

Q4 2010 Q1 2011 Q2 2011 Q1 2012 Q1 2013 Q1 2014 
Repo rate 1.0 1.4 (1.4) 1.7 (1.6) 2.5 (2.2) 3.2 (3.1) 3.6

Note. The assessment in the December 2010 Monetary Policy Update is shown in brackets.
Source: The Riksbank

Deputy Governor Karolina Ekholm and Deputy Governor Lars E.O. Svensson entered a reservation against the decision to raise the repo rate by 0.25 percentage points to 1.5 per cent and against the repo rate path of the main scenario in the Monetary Policy Report.They preferred a repo rate equal to 1.25 per cent and a repo rate path that then gradually rises to 3.25 per cent by the end of the forecast period. Such a repo rate path implies a CPIF inflation closer to 2 per cent and a faster reduction of unemployment towards a longer-run sustainable rate.

Sweden shows the importance of focusing on your policy goals, and doing what is necessary to achieve those goals.  Michael Bordo had some very good observations in his aforementioned essay:

BASED on the history of central banking which is a story of learning how to provide a credible nominal anchor and to act as a lender of last resort, my recommendation is to stick to the tried and true””to provide a credible nominal anchor to the monetary system by following rules for price stability. Also central banks should stay independent of the fiscal authorities.  .  .  .

The historical examples of the Wall Street crash of 1929 and the bursting of the Japanese bubble in 1990 suggests that the tools of monetary policy should not be used to head off asset-price booms. Following stable monetary policy should avoid creating bubbles. In the event of a bubble however, whose bursting would greatly impact the real economy, non-monetary tools should be used to deflate it. Using the tools of monetary policy to achieve financial stability (other than lender-of-last-resort actions) weakens the effectiveness of monetary policy for its primary role to maintain price stability.

Thus a strong case can be made for separating monetary policy from financial stability policy. The two should be separate authorities which communicate closely with each other. However if the institutional structure does not allow this separation and requires the FSA to be housed inside the central bank then it should use tools other than the tools of monetary policy to deal with financial stability concerns. The experience of countries like Canada, Australia and New Zealand which largely avoided the recent crisis, shows that some countries got the mix between monetary and financial policy right.

Even if Mike Bordo and I don’t see exactly eye to eye on what went wrong in America, we both recognize successful monetary policy when we see it.  Set a nominal target, and do what is necessary to hit the target.  Let others worry about the financial industry.

PS. As in the UK, interest rate changes distort the CPI in Sweden.  Thus the CPIF is the better indicator, as it removes the effects of interest rates on mortgage costs.

Don’t mind the gap

In philosophy the “god of the gaps” hypothesis suggests that while science can explain most phenomena, certain seemingly inexplicable events (the origin of life, the universe, the laws of nature, Morgan’s comments, etc) must be attributed to a deity.  In this recent post, I argued Keynesians were using a similar argument for fiscal stimulus.

By the 1990s, most macroeconomists attributed changes in the expected level of nominal spending to monetary policy, and this made fiscal stabilization policy redundant, a sort of 5th wheel.  During the recent crisis, some Keynesians have attempted to revive the arguments for fiscal stimulus, arguing that monetary policy was ineffective at the zero rate bound.  When a group of quasi-monetarists reminded them that there are all sorts of unconventional monetary policy tools, the Keynesians argued that these tools would only be effective if credible, and it was unlikely that markets would believe central bank promises to inflate.  Then the quasi-monetarists showed that markets did react to rumors of QE2 in a way that implied the policy was credible.  Once again, Keynesian fiscal stimulus would seem to have no role to play.

Keynesian were not going to give up easily.  The next argument was that while monetary stimulus can be effective, central banks were afraid to aggressively pursue this sort of policy.  In that case a “gap” would open up between the central bank’s forecast of NGDP, and their implicit target.  Fiscal policy can fill that gap.  In essence, they argue that fiscal policy is useful in direct proportion to the degree to which monetary policy is incompetent (in the Svenssonian sense of failing to equate the policy forecast and policy goal.)  And to give credit where credit it is due, monetary policy has been strikingly incompetent over the past 30 months.

[As an aside, this explains why back in 2009 both the right and left thought the other side was returning to the dark ages.  The right recalled that Keynesian fiscal stimulus had been expunged from graduate education for nearly 30 years, as the fiscal multiplier is zero under an inflation targeting regime.  The left couldn’t understand why the right denied that fiscal stimulus could be effective in a world where the central banks had obviously allowed inflation to fall below target.]

Before addressing some questions by Ryan Avent, I’d like to tell a brief story that might help explain why I think Keynesians are putting too much weight on the “gaps” argument.  Not that the argument is wrong, but rather that it is much less right than it seems at first glance.

Years ago I used to get into arguments with our dean, who insisted that the marginal cost of admitting an extra student to Bentley was essentially zero.  He relied on the common sense notion that most classes had at least a few empty seats, and hence one extra student could be squeezed in at virtually no additional cost.  Here’s why I think that argument is wrong.  Bentley caps classes at 35.  For simplicity, assume it costs $35,000 in salary and benefits for each professor-taught course.  (I.e. profs earn $140,000 in total comp., and teach 4 sections.)  For each student added by Bentley, there is a 1/35 chance that the admission will trigger the need for an extra section.  In that sense the dean was right.  It’s quite likely that the marginal cost would be zero.  On the other hand, if an extra class was needed the cost would be $35,000.  Since we have no idea when and where students will trigger an extra section being offered, the expected cost of an extra student is (1/35)*$35,000, which equals $1000.  And that’s also the average cost.  There’s no “expected gap” to be filled, even if there are occasionally some actual gaps that can be filled at no cost.

The Keynesian gap argument is not as weak, because we may be able to observes gaps in the aggregate economy more easily than in class size.  But I still think they are making an analogous mistake.  For instance, let’s go back to the argument (which I agree with) that the Fed has recently allowed the forecast NGDP growth rate to fall below their policy goal.  For simplicity, assume the Fed’s goal is 6% NGDP growth during the recovery, and the forecast is 4.5%.  So there is a 1.5% gap that might be filled by fiscal stimulus.  And furthermore (so the Keynesians argue) if fiscal stimulus does try to fill this gap, the Fed won’t take affirmative steps to neutralize the stimulus.

Now let’s ask why the Fed allows this 1.5% growth gap.  Perhaps it is fear that unconventional stimulus is a dangerous weapon, and that we might overshoot to high inflation.  (Recall the monetary base has more than doubled.)  The next question is; how should we interpret that caution?  Does that mean the Fed has a de facto 4.5% NGDP target?  When I talk to Keynesians, I get the feeling that they differentiate between situations where the Fed is “doing nothing” and where the Fed is “doing something.”  Thus the Fed would not do unconventional stimulus to push NGDP growth above 4.5%, but if fiscal stimulus pushes it above 4.5% (but below 6%) the Fed would not pull back to slow the economy.  They will allow faster growth, but they won’t try to cause faster growth.

This is where I begin to part company with the Keynesians.  I believe it’s better to think in terms of the Fed always “doing something.”  This is probably easier to explain with an example.  During the spring of 2010 NGDP growth slowed, perhaps due to dollar hoarding following the Greek/euro crisis.  Keynesians argued for more fiscal stimulus, and made the quite plausible assumption that the Fed would not try to offset the effects of fiscal stimulus.  One particularly sophisticated argument was that Bernanke didn’t have enough support (at that time) to push for more stimulus, but that the inflation hawks also lacked enough power to tighten policy after a fiscal boost.  Monetary policy was adrift in the gap.

How do things look today?  If the Keynesians had gotten their way in the spring and early summer of 2010, then Congress would have debated a new fiscal stimulus for a few months, and passed it during the second half of 2010.  Would this have boosted NGDP growth in 2011?  I’m skeptical, as it turns out that the monetary policy “gap” wasn’t that big.  The Fed did move aggressively in November, and indeed moved in September, if you recall that expectations of monetary stimulus are the same thing as actual monetary stimulus, even in the new Keynesian model.  If Congress had done another $400 billion stimulus, it seems unlikely that the Fed would have moved until they had a chance to see whether the fiscal boost would do the trick.  In that case the argument for a positive fiscal multiplier is essentially that fiscal stimulus is more powerful than monetary stimulus.  But in the famous cases where fiscal and monetary stimulus worked in opposite directions (1968-69 and 1981-82), monetary stimulus seemed much stronger.

Here’s my point.  In the spring of 2010 even I had trouble coming up with persuasive arguments against the Keynesian proposals for fiscal stimulus.  Even I had to admit that it was unlikely that the Fed would try to sabotage fiscal stimulus when the recovery was so weak.  But as things played out in reality, it seems unlikely that a fiscal boost would have helped all that much, not because it would have been intentionally sabotaged, but because it would have taken the Fed off the hook, allowing them to do nothing in the fall of 2010.

It’s a mistake to think the Fed is ever really in a situation of “doing nothing.”  We’ve seen them do several mid-course corrections (March 2009 and November 2010) when the recovery was unacceptably weak.  During early 2010 policy was de facto contractionary, as lots of Fed officials talked about “exit strategies.”  If, as seems plausible, these back and forth swings of monetary policy are reactions to expected NGDP growth, then it would be more accurate to say that there is no significant policy gap, but rather the Fed is (for whatever reason) targeting NGDP at a lower level than they would if they could rely on their tried and tested fed funds targeting approach.  They are like that 85 year old lady driving her Camry very slowing, with one foot on the brake, because she read scary news reports of “sudden acceleration” problems in Toyotas.  If Morgan Warstler gets right on her tail with his big SUV, and starts honking, she’ll get even more nervous and drive even slower.  (Sorry Morgan, I’m using you as a symbol of fiscal stimulus.)

In this comment section, Andy Harless presented one of the best arguments for fiscal stimulus:

I still believe the “god of the gaps” argument. (In fact, I may be the only one who has made the argument explicitly. Krugman and others kind of dance around it but don’t quite come out and say it.) Moreover, I believe that we are seeing it in action, although it will never be possible to prove counterfactuals about what Fed would have done. But we saw the tax compromise last year, and we saw that forecasters revised their forecasts as a result and that subsequent economic reports were consistent with that increased optimism, and a lot of people thought that the Fed would cut QE2 short because of the improvement. But subsequent Fedspeak makes it clear that such a cutting short is highly unlikely. I’d say that we are in a gap and that Almighty Fiscal Policy is filling part of it.

I’m not going to argue Andy is wrong, rather I’ll argue he is less right than he thinks.  First, Tyler Cowen often notes that the Fed is normally the “last mover” in the stabilization game.  Congress acts infrequently, whereas the Fed meets every 6 weeks.  In the case Andy discusses, Congress became the last mover for a variety of unusual reasons:

1.  QE2 occurred around election day.  This was partly because the recovery had stalled, and partly because Bernanke was waiting for more support (from the new Obama appointees) on the Board of Governors.

2.  The GOP made huge gains, necessitating a compromise to prevent a huge tax increase in 2011.  Obama was forced to give in on tax cuts for the rich, and in exchange was able to secure more fiscal stimulus via a payroll tax cut.

3.  Because the fiscal stimulus happened to occur right after QE2, and because the Fed likes to “wait and see” after a dramatic policy shift, we can be reasonably sure the Fed won’t immediately negate the tax cuts.

I would also agree that the fiscal stimulus has been somewhat effective.  But the reasons I’d give are a bit different from those of the Keynesians.  I believe cuts in MTRs boost the supply-side of the economy, which slightly raises the Walrasian equilibrium real interest rate.  This effectively makes monetary policy (even at the zero bound) slightly more expansionary.  I don’t believe spending increases have any supply-side boost, and I think their effect on the Walrasian real rate is smaller.  Hence part of the higher expected growth is a direct supply-side effect, part is the indirect effect on monetary policy, and perhaps another part is that if we exit the liquidity trap more quickly, the Fed will be more comfortable with slightly higher NGDP growth, as they can then use conventional tools.  No more 85 year-old lady driving the economy.

And if Keynesians insist on defining “monetary policy” as changes in interest rates, then the tax cuts probably did lead to tighter money.  Woodford argued the Fed should promise to hold rates at zero for an extended period.  But the fiscal boost seems to have moved the expected date of Fed rate increases closer to the present.  Unlike Woodford, I don’t necessarily see that as bad news, as it also indicates that markets think the economy will recover more quickly.  So I’m not going to argue against this particular fiscal stimulus.  All I’ll say is that there was a bit of luck (avoiding the usual last mover problem) and that it was effective partly for supply-side reasons.  (I won’t even attempt to defend that argument here, as it’s already an over-long post.)

This post was motivated by a Ryan Avent post, which asked me to respond to three arguments for fiscal stimulus.  I’ve responded to his second argument.  Here’s his third:

Finally, American government debt is extremely cheap during some severe recessions (like this one), and useful as a monetary tool. Resources and labour are also quite cheap during a downturn and slow recovery. If we’re anxious to minimise the cost of public investments, there seems to me to be a strong case for building a public investment project pipeline that can be accelerated during periods of economic weakness. Save the taxpayers money by borrowing and hiring when the demand for loans and labour is low.

I agree with this argument.  Projects such as infrastructure should meet a cost/benefit test.  Because real rates are lower during recessions, more infrastructure will pass that test during recessions.  But this isn’t how American states behave.  California spends money like a drunken sailor when the capital gains revenues pour in from Silicon Valley, and everything gets put on hold when the bubble collapses.  (BTW, for all you leftists who think the housing bubble shows capitalism doesn’t work, note that our governments are just as irrationally exuberant.)  Yes, I’d love to see our fiscal regime become more like Singapore, but it would be far easier to reform our monetary regime to make fiscal stimulus superfluous, then it would be to reform our dysfunctional fiscal regime.  I agree with Ryan’s logic; I just don’t see it happening.

If the states don’t save money in the good years, they have nothing to spend in the bad years.  At this point fiscal advocates call on the deus ex machina of federal spending.  But the federal government’s not good at quickly implementing shovel-ready projects; in our system that’s mostly done at the state level.  Plausible federal projects, like high speed rail, are far from being shovel-ready.  (There was a proposal to build high speed rail from Madison to Milwaukee, now cancelled.  Having grown up in Madison I can assure you no one would have used that high speed rail service.  Normal people do the very easy 75 minute trip by car, and poor people take Badger Bus, much cheaper than high speed rail.)

Ryan Avent also argued:

Mr Sumner suggests that the Fed controls the glide path, such that any fiscal boost will be offset by monetary policy and will therefore have a multiplier of zero. I don’t quite agree, for a few reasons. First, sometimes the Fed messes up, as it did in 2008. If Congress had passed a massive, immediate stimulus measure to go along with TARP, I believe Mr Sumner would agree that it would have done some good. He would prefer the Fed not to mess up, but given that the Fed will sometimes mess up, strong automatic stabilisers strike me as a very nice thing to have.

The honest answer is I don’t know, but here’s a few reasons I am skeptical:

1.  Fiscal stimulus is slow.  It wouldn’t prevent the initial slump, and the actual date of passage (early 2009) is about as fast as thing happen in the US.  But by that time it was obvious monetary policy had also failed.  The Fed knew it was behind the curve.  So Avent’s argument is that fiscal authorities were willing to act more aggressively than monetary authorities in early 2009.  The argument is (presumably), that a bigger fiscal stimulus bill would not have led the Fed to forgo QE1 in March 2009.  Maybe.  The argument is that no stimulus bill would not have forced Bernanke to pull out the nuclear option, level targeting, which is likely to be highly effective.  Maybe.  The argument is that the actual fiscal stimulus produced benefits in the form of faster recovery, which outweighed its costs (a big future deadweight burden on the economy, through higher taxes.)  Maybe.

2.  Given all this uncertainty, I can’t argue Avent is definitely wrong.  If I had my way the fiscal stimulus would have involved the elimination of the employer share of payroll taxes in 2009.  That’s effectively a 7.65% wage cut that doesn’t affect worker-take-home pay at all.  It essentially neutralizes the negative impact of falling NGDP combined with sticky wages.  Then I’d tell the Fed to get its act together and make sure it had enough monetary expansion in place to take over in 2010, once the taxes went back to normal.  I seem to recall that Singapore and also a few European countries do this sort of thing.

3.  I hope people reading this post will understand why even if I am wrong, we’ve got to stop building models of fiscal stimulus that rely on ever more epicycle-type arguments, and just get on with implementing a simple monetary regime of targeting the &%$@#%$ nominal GDP forecast, level targeting.

PS.  Readers who skip my comment sections can sample Morgan here at 2/10, 7:07am and 2/10, 13:23pm.  If only I could combine Morgan’s Hunter S. Thompson-like gonzo style with my knowledge of macro, I could be the Krugman of right-wing blogging.

QE2 after three months

Here’s what Tyler Cowen had to say back on November 10th, a week after QE2 was announced:

I’m unhappy with claims that “we’re not doing enough” and that therefore this is no test of the idea of monetary stimulus.  This is what QEII looks like, filtered through the American system of political checks and balances.  And if it looks small, compared to the size of our problems, well, monetary policy almost always looks small compared to its potential effects.  I’m willing to consider this a dispositive test and I am very curious to see the results.

Is it too soon to see the results of this “dispositive test?”  In one sense it’s far too late.  Monetary policy should target NGDP growth expectations, and we saw in the run-up to QE2 that growth expectations were rising rapidly on hints of QE2.  We don’t have NGDP futures markets, but based on things like stock and commodity prices, and TIPS market inflation expectation, I’d guess expected NGDP growth for 2011 rose from around 3.5% to 4.0% in August to around 5.0% to 5.5% in November.  At the time I argued that this was quite good news, although we actually needed about twice as much monetary stimulus.  Unfortunately, I’m just about the only person in the world (with the possible exception of Robin Hanson) who evaluates macro policy on that basis.  Most want to see how it plays out in the real world.

Some would argue it is too early to see the effects in the real world, citing “long and variable lags” in monetary policy.  As you know, I don’t entirely buy the lag argument.  I think it reflected misidentification of monetary shocks by the monetarists (and Keynesians as well.)  And the asset markets seem to agree with me.  For instance, when policy was very volatile during the 1930s, monetary shocks led to movements in asset prices that were highly correlated with contemporaneous movements in industrial production.  That shouldn’t happen with long and variable lags.

Of course there is a distributed lag, as output such as the construction of new office buildings requires careful planning.  Asset prices respond immediately to monetary shocks, whereas some types of output respond almost immediately, but the peak impact may be many months out into the future.  So we don’t have enough data yet to see the peak impact.  Here’s what we do know; starting with bad news, then the good news:

Bad news:

1.  Real and nominal GDP growth was disappointing in 2010:4.  The media called the 3.2% RGDP growth a slightly positive development, but the 3.5% NGDP growth was very disappointing.

2.  The payroll numbers have been disappointing; although it’s possible the snowstorms impacted the data.

Good news:

1.  The final sales number (both real and nominal) was quite strong, somewhere around 7% in 2010:4.  The real number was the strongest since the 1980s.

2.  The unemployment rate fell by 0.8 percentage points in the two months after QE2 was announced, the sharpest two month fall since 1958.  As with the payroll number, there are questions about the accuracy of this data.

3.  The ISM manufacturing activity number for January was the highest since 2004.

4.  The ISM manufacturing employment number for January was the highest since 1973.

5.  The ISM exports number for January matched May 2010, and was otherwise the highest since 1988.

6.  The ISM services number for January showed the fastest growth since August 2005.

My hunch is that the truth is somewhere between the two extremes, and we are still on course for 5.0% to 5.5% NGDP growth.  BTW, NGDP growth (or nominal final sales growth) is of course the only test of the efficacy of monetary stimulus at the zero bound.  RGDP growth is useful for a different question; to decide whether stimulus of any kind was needed.  If the NGDP growth is mostly inflation and not much RGDP growth, it would suggest that neither monetary nor fiscal stimulus was appropriate, rather labor market and tax reforms would have been called for.  So far the data shows mostly real output gains, and relatively low inflation.

Please remind me to do this test about every three months.  I may forget because I don’t think it is important.  I already know the only answer that matters to me.  But it is obviously important in terms of how the rest of the world will evaluate the ideas we quasi-monetarists have been peddling for the last few years.  So far so good; keep your fingers crossed.